medical entrance questions

Monday, April 14, 2008

H2+ ion Hydrogen molecular ion.
The only electron is in the bonding als orbital \ s Is1
Bond order = =
There is one unpaired electron
\ Para magnetic
He2 molecule
4 electrons s Is2 *s Is2
b.o.= = 0
\ No stable molecule
He2+ ion
3 electrons
s Is2*s Is2 \ Paramagnetic.
Li2 molecule
6 electrons.
s Is2 *s Is2 s 2s2 b.o = = 1
No impaired electron \ Diamagnetic
Be2 molecule
8 Electrons
s Is2 *s Is2 s 2s2*s 2s2
b. o = = 0 No stable molecule
B2 molecule
10 electrons
s Is2 *s Is2 s 2s2*s 2s2 s 2px2
b.o. = = 1 Diamagnetic
C2 molecule
12 electrons
s Is2 *s Is2 s 2s2*s 2s2 s 2px2 P2 Py1 = P 2Pz1
b.o. = = 2
Contains unpaired electrons \ Para magnetic
N2 molecule
14 electrons
s Is2 *s Is2 s 2s2 *s 2s2 s 2px2 P2 Py2 = P 2Pz2
b.o. = = 3 Diamagnetic
O2 molecule
16 electrons
sIs2 *sIs2 s2s2 *s2s2 s2px2 P2 Py2 = P 2Pz2 *P2Py1 = *s2pz1
b.o. = = 2
There are two unpaired electrons and the molecule is paraimagnetic
F2 molecule
18 electrons
sIs2 *sIs2 s2s2 *s2s2 s2px2 P2 Py2 = P 2Pz2 *P2Py2 = *P2Pz2
b.o. = = 1
Ne2 molecule
20 electrons
sIs2 *sIs2 s2s2 *s2s2 s2px2 P2 Py2 = P 2Pz2 *P2P2y = P2P2z *P2P2x
b. o. = = 0
The molecule does not exist.
The bond order of O2 is 2 and that of N2 is 3 so that N2 is more stable and less reactive than O2.
The bond energy of O2, molecule is 494 KJ mole-1 whereas that of N2 molecule is 945 (KJ) mol-1. \O2 is more reactive than N2.
Bond Energy
[Bond energy is the quantity of energy which is released when the bond is formed. It is also equal to the bond disssociation — energy, which is the quantity of energy required to break the bond and generate the gaseous atoms]
When the number of antibonding electrons increases, the bond order is decreased and stability also is decreased. Removal of antibonding electrons increases the stability of the resulting species as it has a higher bond order.
Addition of electrons to the bonding M.O. increases the bond order as also the stability of the molecule. Removal of electrons from the bonding M.O. has the opposite effect.
O2+ is more stable than O2
M.O. picture of O2 is sIs2 *sIs2 s2s2 *s2s2 s2px2 P2 Py2 = P 2Pz2 *P2Py1 and *P2P2z
b. o. = 2 for O2
For O2+ an electron is removed from the antibonding *P2P orbital. Thus order increases by 0.5
O2+ sIs2 *sIs2 s2s2 *s2s2 s2px2 P2 Py2 P 2Pz2 *P2Py1
b.o. = 25
Unlike the V.B. method, the M.O. Theory explains the observed paramagnetism of molecular oxygen.
The M.O. picture shows two unpaired electrons in the antibonding *P2py and *P2pzorbitals, which accounts for the magnetic behaviour.
In fact, O2 behaves as a diradical. .*•
The bond length and the bond order are inversely related. When bond order increases bond length decreases and vice versa.
Atomic structure and chemical bonding
This module deals with the study of the structure of atoms, leading to the electronic configurations of atoms, hybridisation of orbitals, molecular orbital method of bonding, shapes of molecules.
Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation and the de Broglie Relation
To explain the behaviour of visible light, Sir Issac Newton suggested the “Corpuscular” theory’ and Christian Huygens suggested the “wave” theory. Max Planck put forward the “photonic” theory of radiation. Einstein in 1905 suggested that any radiation has dual behaviour - as wave and particle.
In 1923, de Broglie suggested the matter-wave dualism: all matter, including electrons, have the dual character as particle and wave. He derived a relation, De Broglie equation, for the wave length of a particle
De Broglie equation
E = mc2, Einstein’s mass - energy relation, (as particle)
where E = energy, m = mass and c = velocity of light
E = hv, Planck’s relation, (energy of a photon), (as wave)
where E = energy, v = frequency of radiation and h is Planck’s constant
Equating them,
hu = mc2
But frequency v = where c is the velocity of light and l, is the wave length
Thus h = mc2 \= h/mc
l = h/mu where u velocity of the particle .
l = h/mu = h/p when P is the momentum.
de Broglie wavelength is appreciable for microscopic particles like the electrons and negligible for macroscopic particles.
The Bohr postulate, the angular momentum of an electron in an orbit (circular) is an integral multiple of h/2p , is justified by the de Broglie equation.
For a wave to be in phase - sustain permanently in the circle - the circumference of the circle must be an integral multiple of the wavelength.
ie. 2pr = nl, where r = radius and l, = wavelength.
But l, = h/mu (de Broglie relation)
Thus 2pr = n/mu
mur = n h/2p
(mur = angular momentum)
Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
For any pair of interdependent or Conjugate properties - like the wave and particle nature of the electron- when one of the properties is precise, the other is uncertain. Due to the dual nature of the electron, it is very difficult to locate the exact position and know the exact velocity simultaneously. This is stated in
Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle
It is impossible to determine with precision, the exact position and
velocity (or momentum) of a small moving particle like the electron
1. All other factors remaining unchanged, the radius of the reference circle is doubled. What shall be the effect on the maximum velocity of corresponding SHM?
a. No effect b. It shall be doubled c. It shall be halved d. None of these
2. All other factors remaining unchanged, the displacement is halved. The acceleration will be
a. Halved b. doubled c. trebled d. quadrupled
3. If the magnitude of displacement is numerically equal to that of acceleration, then the time period is:
a. 1 second b. p second c. 2p second d. 4p second
4. If the mass of an oscillator is numerically equal to its force constant, then the frequency is:
a. p b. 2p c . 1/p d. 1/2p
5. Time period of oscillation of a spring is 12s on Earth. What shall be the time period if it is taken to Moon?
a. 12s b. 12/6 s c. 12 x 6 s d. 16 x Ö12 s
6. What shall be the time period of a simple pendulum in a freely falling lift? Given: T = time period of the pen dulum in the lift at rest
a. T b. 2T c. T/g d. Infinite
7. What is the minimum time taken by a particle in SHM of time period T from the point of maximum displace ment to that at which the displacement is half the amplitude?
a. T/4 b. T/8 c. T/12 d. T/6
8. A particle performs harmonic motion along a line 4 cm long. The velocity of the particle when it passes through the mean position is p ms-1. The period of SHM is:
a. 0.01 s b. 0.04 s c. 0.8 s d. 0.6 s
9. The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is 5 s. The spring is cut into four equal parts and the same mass is now suspended from one of its parts. The period is now
a. 5 s b. 2.5 s c. 1.25 s d. 5/16 s
10. The time period of a second’s pendulum is 2s . Thespherical bob which is empty from inside has a bob of the same radius but having a different mass of 100 g. The new period will be:
a. 4 s b. 1 s c. 2 s d. 8 s
11. For a simple pendulum, the graph between l and T is:
a. Hyperbola b. Curved line c. Straight line d. Parabola
12. The velocity and acceleration of a particle executing SHM have a steady phase relationship . The accelera tion leads velocity in phase by:
a. + p b. + p/2 c. -p/2 d. -p
13. A block P is based on oscillation of a spring and another clock Q is based on pendulum motion. Both the clocks run at the same rate on Earth . Both the clocks are then taken to a planet having same density as Earth but twice the radius. Then
a. P will run faster than Q b. Q will run faster than P c. Both will run at the same rates as on earth.
d. Both will run at equal rates but faster than on earth
14. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by:
y1 = 10 sin (4pt + p/4) and y2 =5 (sin 4pt + Ö3 cos 4pt)
The ratio of the amplitudes of two SHM’s is:
a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 2 : 1 d. 1 : Ö3
15. If a simple pendulam of length l has maximum angular displacement q, then the maximum K. E of bob of mas m is:
a. 1/2ml/g b. mg/221 c. mgl (1-cos q) d. mgl sin q/2

1. If nCr-1 = 36, nCr = 84 and nCr +1 = 126 then r =
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. If (n + 2) C8 : (n-2) P4 = 57 : 16 then n =
a) 16 b) 17 c) 18 d) 19
3. The number of ways in which 5 identical rings can be worn on four fingers is
a) 45 b) 54 c) 5C4 d) 5P4
4. The number of integers greater than 7000 that can be formed with the digits 3,5,7,8 and9 no. digit bfins
repeated is a) 72 b) 120 c) 192 d) 264
5. The rate of 35 C8 + 7SK =1 42- KC7 + 5S j =1 47- j C40- j is
a) 47C7 b) 47C8 c) 46C7 d) 46C8
6. If a polygon has 54 diagonels , the number of its sides is
a) 9 b) 10 c) 11 d) 12
7. 20 persons wereinvited to a party. Number of ways in which host and goest will seat round a circular table such
that two particular persons be seated on aither side of the host, is
a) 20! b) 18 ! c) 2 X 18 ! d) 1/2 X 20 !
8. ( 7C0 + 7C1) + (7C1 + 7C2 ) + ------ + ( 7C6 + 7C7) =
a) 27-1 b) 28-2 c) 28-1 d) 28
9. In nC4, nC5, nC6 are in AP then n =
a) 14 or7 b) 11 c) 17 d) 8
10. The number of five digit telephone numbers having atleast one of their digit repeated is
a) 90,000 b) 1,00,000 c)30240 d)69760
11. There are 16 points in a plane , no three of which are in a st.line except 8 which are all in a st. line . The number
of triangles that can be formed by joining them equals
a) 504 b) 552 c) 560 d) 1120
12. The number of ways of selecting 10 players out of 22 when 4 of them being excluded and 6 always included is
a) 22C10 b) 12C2 c) 495 d) None
13. The number of 4 digit numbers formed out of the digits 3,4,5,6,7,8,0 if number digit is repeated is
a) 720 b) 270 c) 7P2 d) 6C4
14. Everybody in a room shakes hand with everybody. The total number of hand shakes is 66. The total number of
person in the room is
a) 11 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14
15. If the 2nd , 3rd and 4th terms in the expansion of ( x + a)n are 240, 720 and1080 respectively then n =
a) 15 b) 20 c) 10 d) 15
16. The term indipendent of x in ( x2 - 1/x)9 is
a) 1 b) -1 c) 49 d) None
17. C1 + 2C2 + 3C3 + nC4 =
a) n.2n-1 b) (n + 2)2n c) (n + 1)2n-1 d) ( n + 2) 2n-1
18. If the of x7 in (ax2 + 1/bx)11 and the of x-7 in (ax-1/bx2 )11 are equale then ab=
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d)4
19. The sum of the in the explenation of (1-x)10 is
a) 0 b) 1 c) 102 d) 1024

1 c 2 d 3 a 4 c 5 b 6 a 7 d 8 c 9 b 10 a 11 d 12 a 13 c 14 a 15 b 16 d 17 d 18 a 19 a
1 c 2 a 3 c 4 c 5c 6 c 7 b8 a 9 b 10 d 11 d 12 d 13 c 14 c 15 b 16 b 17 a 18 d 19 a 20 a 21 b 22 d 23 a 24 c 25 c

1. The product of the roots of the eqn x2 + 2kx + 2a210gk - 1= 0 is 7 then the root of the eqn are real for K=
a) 1 b) -1 c) 2 d) 3
2. If a,b,c are real all a+ b+ c = 0 then the root of the eqn 4ax2 + 3bx + 2c = 0 are
a) Both real b) Both imaginary c) One real & one imaginary d) None
3. If one root of 3x2 + Px + 3 = 0 is square of the other , then P = a) 1/3 b) 1 c) 3 d) 2/3
4. If one root of i x2-2 (1+ i) x + 2-i = 0 is -i, the other root is a) i b) 2 + i c) 2 - i d) -(2 - i )
5. The integral value of m for which the roots of the eqn mx2 + (2m-1 ) x + ( m-2 ) = 0 are rational are
a) n, n e I b) n+ 1 , n e I c) n( n + 1) , neI d) n ( n - 1 ), neI
6. Ifa,b be the root of a(x2 + p2 ) + apx + bp2x2 = 0 then value of a(a2 + b2) + aa b + ba2b2 is
a) p b) -p c) 0 d) 1
7. If teh eqn x2 - bx / ax -c = n-1 / n+1 has roots equale in magnitude but opposite in sign, then n =
a) a +b /a-b b) a-b/ a+b c) b-a /b+a d) b+a /b-a
8. The number of root of 8 Sec2q - 6 Sec q + 1 then a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) infinite
9. If the roots of the eqn x2 + px - q = 0 offer by 1 then a) p2 =4q b) p2 = 4q+1 c) p2 = 4q-1 d) None
10. If a, b are the root of the eqn x2-px + 36 = 0 and a2 +b2 = 9, then p =
a) ±3 b) ±6 c) ±8 d) ±9
11. The value of K for which x2-Kx -21 = 0, x2-3kx + 35 =0 have a common root is
a) 4 b) - 4 c) ±2 d) None
12. If the numbers x,y,z are in AP, and tan x,tan y , tan z are also in AP then x, y, z satisfy
a) x + y = z b) x+ z = y c) y + z = x d) x = y = z
13. In an AP Tm = 1/n , Tn = 1/m then Tmn = a) 1/mn b) 1/m + 1/n c) 1 d) 0
14. If m times mth term of an AP equales n times nth term, the (m + n)th term is a) 1 b) m + n c) 0 d) mn
15. Ratio of the sum of n Am’s between two given number a & b are sum of n Am’s between them is
a) n : m b) m : n c) ( m + n) : ( m-n) d) (m-n ) : ( m + n)
16. The sum of three numbers in GP is 14. If the first two numbers are each increased by 1, and the 3rd
term decreased by 1, the regarding number are in AP , then numbers are
a) 1, 2, 4 b) 2, 4, 8 c) 1, 3, 9 d) 2, 6, 18
17. tn be the nth term of a GP. It 100 S n = 1 t2n = x and 100S n = 1 t2n-1 = y such that x ¹ y then
common ratio is a) x/y b) x/y c) y/x d) None
18. The sum of an infiniti Gp is 4 and second term is 3/4 then
a) a = 7/4 , r = 3/ 7 b) a = 2 , r = 3/8 c) a = 3/2 , r = 1/2 d) a = 3, r = 1/4
19. If x = 1 + a + a2 + -----¥, y = 1 + b + b2 + ------¥ then 1 + ab + a2b2 + -----¥
a) xy/x+ y-1 b) x + y/ x-y c) x2 + y2 /x - y d) None
20. HM of two numbers is 4 and their AM ‘A’ and GM ‘G’ satisfy .The relation 2A + G2 = 27 then nos are
a) 6,3 b) 5, 4 c) 5, -5/2 d) -3 , 1
21. If A1, A2 are two GM’s, G1,G2 are two GM’s and H1, H2 are two HM’s between two nos , then

= a) b) c) d)
22. a,b,c are in AP and a2, b2, c2 are in GP. Ita a) 1/2 Ö2 b) 1/2 Ö3 c) 1/2 -1/Ö3 d) 1/2 -1/Ö2
23. The value of n for which is GM between a & b is a) -1/2 b) -1 c) 0 d) 1/2

24. The sum of the int5egen from 1 to 100 which are not divisible by 3 or 5 is
a) 2498 b)4735 c) 2317 d) 2032
25. Sum of the series 12 + 32 + 52 + ------ ¥
a n(n + 1)(n = 1) b) n(2n-1)(2n + 1) c) (n-1)2 (2n + 1) d) (2n + 1)3
2 3 6 3

1 d 2 c 3 d 4 a 5 b 6 b 7 a 8 a 9 c 10 c 11 c 12 b 13 c 14 a 15 c 16 a 17 a 18 a

19 c 20 a 21 a 22 a 23 b 24 a 25 d 26 c 27 a 28 c 29 a 30 b 31 d 32 c 33 c 34 b 35 c 36 d
18 Which of the following has the least elasticity :
a) Rubber b) Steel c) Copper d) Iron
19 A rectangular beam is bent into the arc of a circle , the strain produced in the beam is :
a) Extensional only b) Compressional only c) Both d) Shearing
20 Young’s modulus of the material of a wire of length L and radius r is Y N/m2. If the length is
reduced to L/2 and radius to r/2 , the Young’s modulus will be
a) Y b) 2y c) Y/4 d) Y/2
21 The Young’s modulus for a liquid is : a) 0 b) 1 c) ¥ d) Some finit , non zero constant
22 Poisson’s ratio is the ratio between:
a) Lateral contraction per unit stress and longitudinal elongation per unit stress
b)Y and h c) Y and K d) K and h
23 The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are 10 X1010 N/m2 and 20 X 1010N/m2 respectively.
A brass wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by 1mm under the same force, the
radii of brass and steel wires are RB and RS respectively.
a) RS = Ö2 RB b) RS = RB/Ö 2 c) RS = 4RB d) RS = RB/4
24 A rectangular beam of width b and depth d is supported symmetriclly on two knife edges distance
L apart and loaded in the middle by a weight w. Then the depression is given by
(Young’s modulus = E)
a) wL3 / 4Ebd3 b) EWL3/ bd3 c) Wd3/ 4EbL3 d) Wbd2/EL3
25 For a given metal , the Young’s modulus is 2.4times that of rigidity modulus. Its poisson’s ratio is
a) 2.4 b)1.2 c) 0.4 d) 0.2
26 A cable is cut to half of its original length. The maximum load that it can support is :
a) Half b)Same as previous c) Double d) One -fourth
27 For a metal Y =7.03 X1010 N/m2 and s = 0.345. The value of h will be :
a) 2.65 X1010N/m2 b)2.42 X1010N/m2 c)5.23 X 1010N/m2 d) 10.19 X 1010 N/m2
28 For silver, Young’s modulus is 7.25 X1010 N/m2 and Bulk modulus is 11 X1010N/m2 Its poisson’s
ratio will be : a) -1 b) 0.5 c) 0.39 d) 0.25
29 Poisson’s ratio for tungsten is 0.295 and its Young’s modulus is 41.0 X1011 N/m2 then its volume
elastic ity will be :
a) 33.3 X1011 N/m2 b) 3.3 X1011N/m2 c) 3.3 X1010 N/m2 d) None of the above
30 If the Young’s modulus of the material is 3 times its modulus of rigidity, then its volume elasticity
will be : a)Zero b) Infinity c) 2 X1010N/m d) 3 X 1010N/m2
31 The elasticity limit for a gas :
a) Exists b) Exists only at absolute zero c) Exists for a perfect gas d) Does not exist
32 If Young’s modulus for a material is zero, then the state of material should be :
a) solid b) Solid but powder c) Gas d) None of the above
33 Which one of the following substances possesses the highest elasticity :
a) Rubber b) Glass c) Steel d) Copper
34 Which one of the following quantities does not have the unit of force per unit area :
a) Stress b) Strain c) Young’s modulus of elasticity d) Pressure
35 Two wires of the same material have lengths in the ratio 1 : 2 and their radii are in the ratio1 : Ö2.
If they are stretched by appplying equal forces, the increas in their lengths will be in the ratio :
a) 2 :Ö 2 b) Ö2 : 2 c) 1 : 1 d) 1 : 2
36 The possible value of Poisson;s ratio :
a) 1 b) 0.9 c) 0.8 d) 0.4

1 Hooke’s law essentially defines :
a) stress b) Strain c) Yield point d) Elastic limit
2 The beams of metal supported at the two ends is loaded at the centre . The depression at the centre
is proportionnal to : a) Y2 b) Y c) 1/Y d) 1/Y2
3 Bulk modulus was first defined by : a) Young b) Bulk c) None d) Maxwell
4 On stretching a wire, the elastic energy stored per unit volume is:
a) Fdl /2Al b) FA/ 2l c) Fl/ 2A d) Fl/2
5 The Young’s modulus of a wire of length L and radius r is Y newton per square metre. If the lengthm
is reduced to L /2 and radius r/2, its Young’s modulus will be : a) Y/2 b) Y c) 2Y d) 4Y
6 The work done per unit volume in stretching the wire is equale to :
a) Stress X Strain b) (1/2) Stress X Strain c) Stress / Strain d) Strain / Stress
7 The relationship between Y, h and s is :
a) Y = 2h ( 1 + s ) b) h = 2Y (1+ s ) c) s = 2Y/ ( 1 + h ) d) Y = h( 1+ s )
8 A wire is stretched by 0.01 m by a certian force F. Another wire of same material whose diameter
and lengths are double to the original wire is stretched by the same force. Then its elongation
will be : a) 0.005m b) 0.01m c) 0.02m d) 0.02m
9 An iron bar of length l and having cross section A is heated from 00C to 1000C. If this bar is held so
that it is not permited to expand or bend , the gigantic force that it developed is :
a) Directly propotional to the length of the bar b) Inversly propotional to the length of the bar
c) Indipendent of the length of bar d) Inversly propotional to the cross-section of the bar
10 When a body undergoes a linear tensile strain it experiences a lateral contraction also. The ratio of
lateral strain to longitudinal strain is known as :
a) Young’s modulus b) Bulk modulus c) Poisson’s ratio d) Hook’s law
11 Two rods of different materials having coefficients of linear expantion a1 ,a2 and Young’s modulii
Y1and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive walls. The rods are heated such that they
undergo the same increase in temperature . There is no bending of rods. If a1 : a2 = 2 :3, the thermal
stresses developed in the two rods are equal provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to :
a) 2 : 3 b) 1 : 1 c) 3 : 2 d) 4 : 9
12 The breaking stress for a wire of unit cross section is called its :
a)Yield point b) Tensile strength c) Elastic fatigue d) Young;s modulus
13 Two wires A and B are of the same material. Their lengths are in the ratio 1 :2 and the diameters are
in the ratio 2 : 1. If they are pulled by the same force , the increase in length will be in the ratio:
a) 2 :1 b) 1 : 4 c) 1 : 8 d) 8 : 1
14 The following four wires length L and radius r are made of the same material . Which of these will
have the largest extension when the same tension is applied ? a) L =50cm , r = 0.25mm
b)L = 100cm , r = 0.5mm c) L = 200cm , r = 1mm d) L = 300cm, r = 15mm
15 A cylinder fixed rigidly at one end has a tangential force applied to its other end. The shape and
volume of the cylinder remain unaltered . The strain produced in the cylinder is :
a) Longitudinal b) Volumetric c) Shear d) Zero
16 A metal bar of length L, area of cross-section A, Young’s modulus Y and coefficient of linear
expansion a is clamped between two stout pillars . Now it is heated throgh t0 c. The force exerted by
the bar is : a) YA at b) YALt c) YA a Lt d) Ya Lt /A
17 For steel Y=2 X1011 N/m2. The force required to double the length of a steel wire of area 1cm2 is :
a) 2 X 107N b) 2 X106 N c)2 X108N d) 2 X 105N


1. Phenols are aromatic hydroxy compounds.
2. Cresols are methyl phenols
3. Picric acid — 2,4,6 - trinitro phenol
4. Catechol — 1,2 - didhydroxy benzene
5. Resorcinol — 1,3 - dihydroxy benzene
6. Hydroquinone or Quinol — 1,4 - dihydroxybenzene
7. Pyrogallol — 1,2,3 - trihydroxy benzene
8. Seliwanoff’s reagent : Resorcinol + conc. HCl
9. The middleoil fraction of coal tar contains phenol and naphthalene
10. Benzene + Propene ——> cumene ————> cumene hydroperoxide ————> phenol + acetone
11. By-product in cumene - Phenol process. Acetone
12. Aniline —————> Benzene diazonium chloride ——> phenol
13. Phenol turns pink due to oxidation- quinones are formed
14. Phenol is acidic due to resonance
15. Nitrophenols are stronger acids than phenols
16. Cresols are weaker acids than phenols
17. Phenols are weaker than carboxylic acids
18. Picric acid is highly acid - soluble in NaHCO3 solution
19. Acidity of phenols: picric acid > p -nitrophenol > m - nitrophenol > phenol
20. With neutral FeCl3 soln., phenol gives a violet colour
21. Salicylaldehyde and salicylic acid with neutral FeCl3, gives a violet colour
22. Phenol dissolves in NaOH forming sodium phenoxide and water
23. Halogen acids do not react with phenols
24. Phenol forms triphenyl phosphate with PCl5
25. Phenol + C6H5COCl ——> phenyl Benzoate -- Schotten - Baumann reaction
26. Phenol decolourises bromine water forming 2,4,6 - tribromophenol
27. Bromination in the presence of CS2 gives a mixture of O-bromo phenol and P-bromo phenol
28. Phenol with dil. HNO3 gives a mixture of O-nitrophenol and P-nitrophenol
29. O-nitro phinol and P - nitrophenol can be seperated by steam distillation
30. Phenol with conc. HNO3 gives picric acid
31. Kolbe’s reaction
Phenol ———> sodium phenoxide ——> sodium salicylate —> salicylic acid
32. Elb’s persulphate oxidation: Phenol ————> Quinol
33. Liberman’s nitroso reaction ( Test for phenol)
Phenol ——————> blue colour ———> red ———> blue
34. Phenol + Phthalicanhydride ——————> phenolpthalein
35. Bakelite : Phenol - formaldehyde thermosetting plastic
36. Phenol with zincdust gives benzene
37. Salicylal dehyde with Zndust gives Benzaldehyde
38. Salicylic acid with Zndust gives Benzoic acid
39. C6H5SO3H ———>C6H5-OH
Benzene sulphonicacid
40. The reagent used for the estimation of phenol is Bromine water
1. Ethers are alkoxyalkanes
2. IUPAC name of CH3CH2OCH3 is methoxyethane
3. IUPAC name of CH3OCH(CH3)2 is 2-methoxy propane
4. Anisole : methoxybenzene
5. Phenetole : Ethoxy benzene
6. CH3CH2I + (CH3)3 CONa ———> CH3CH2O (CH3)3
7. (CH3)3C I + CH3ONa ———> 2- methylpropene
8. Ether has a net dipolemoment — angular
9. CH3OCH3 + HI ———> CH3OH + CH3I
10. CH3OCH3 + HI ———> 2CH3I
11. CH3 OCH2 +HI ———> CH3I + CH3CH2OH

Thursday, April 10, 2008

1 b 2 d 3 d 4 c 5 b 6 e 7 d 8 b 9 c 10 a 11 a 12 d 13 d14 a 15 b 16 c 17 c 18 c 19 a 20 d 21 c 22e 23 b 24 d 25 b 26 b 27 d 28 e 29 c 30 d 31 d 32 d 33 b 34 c 35 e 36 d 37 d 39 b 40 a 41 c 42 c 43 d 44e 45 c 46 a 47 e 48 a 49 b 50 a 51 d52 a 53 e 54 e 55 b 56 c 57 d 58 d 59 d 60 d 61 d 62 d
63 d 64a 65 b 66 a 67 b 68 a 69 d 70 b 71 c 72 c 73 d 74 a 75 d 76 a 77b
78 a79 d 80 b 81 b 82 d 83 c 84 b 85 b 86 d87 c 88 b 89 e 90 d 91 b 92 d
93 d 94 c 95 b 96 a 97 c 98 a 99 b 100 e 101 c 102 c 103 d 104 a 105 a
106 e 107 b 108 b 109 b 110 A 111 B 112 C 113 C 114 E 115 A 116 B 117 B 118 C 119 A 120 C

Wednesday, April 9, 2008


1. Syphilis is caused by
A. Clostridium tetani B. Treponema pallidium C. Vibria cholerae
D. Salmonella typhosaE. Pleuropneumonia
2. The peak concentrations of ozone above the surface of earth is present at a height of
A. 10km B. 15km C. 20km D. 25km E. 30km
3. Phytophthora infestans is a fungus causing the following disease
A. Smut in wheat B. downy mildew of cereals C. foliar seedling disease of rice
D. late blight of potato E. wilt disease of cotton
4. The sceintific name of the brown plant hhopper is A. Helicovepra armigera B. Schistocera gregaria
C. Nilaparvata lugens D. Carausius morosus E. Calliphora erythrocophala
5. Fungi in which a sexual method of reproduction occurs are called
A. Conjugation fungi B. fungi imperfecti C. sac fungi D. club fungi E. ssmil moulds
6. The principal action of enteropeptidase is only to activate _______ of the pancreatic juice
A. Amino peptidase B. Chymo typsin C. Carboxy peptidase D. Trypsin E. Trypsinogen
7. The plant which gives agar- agar
A. Laminaria B. Chara C. Sargassum D. Gelidium E. Cephaleuros
8. Squamous epithelium forms the inner lining of
A. Heart B. lung alveoli C. Kidny D. Salivary duct E. Pancreatic duct
9. Identify the correct statement from the following
A .Gymnosperms are non- vascular seed bearing plants B. Pteridophytes are vascular seed bearing plnts
C. Angiosperms are vascular, seed bearing plants D. Bryophytes are vascular, non flowering plants
E. Algae are non flowering plants
10. Collagen and elastin are synthesized by
A. Fibroblasts B. Macrophages C. Mast cells D. Adipocytes E. Chondrocytes
11. A common charecter found in eubacteria and cyanobacteria is A. Cell wall being composed of
peptidoglycan B. occurence of oxygenic photosynthesis C. Presence of photossynthetic lamellae
D. Presence of gas vacuoles E. Presence of well developed nucleus
12. The extra cellular fluid in the blood has a pH of
A. 5.8 B. 6.3 C. 6.9 D. 7.4 E. 7.8
13. One of the following is known as "walking fern"
A. Dryopteris B. Sphagnum C. Araucaria D. Adiantum E. Riccia
14. The normal range of urea in 100 ml of mammalian blood
A. 17- 30 mg B. 40 - 80mg C. 4 -16 mg D. 56- 70mg E. None of these
15. In Agaricus the longes phase is represented by the following nuclear condition in the mycelium
A. 2n B. n + n C. n D. 3n E. 4n
16 Oxygen carrying blood pigment in certain Annelids is A. Heamoglobin B. Heamocyannin
C. Chlorocruorin D. Heamoerythrin E. Pinnaglobin
17. Which of the following statements about "bolting " is incorrect ?
A. It is marked by the internodel elongation in rosette plants B. It is an indication for the beginning of
reproductive phase C. It requires short day D. It requires cold night
E. It can be achieved by gibberellin application
18. Stomach of camel ddoes not have
A. Rumen B. Reticulum C. Omasum D. abomasum E. None of these
19. The predomiinant substant found in the walls of cork tissue
A. Suberin B. Lignin C. Pectin D. Chitin E. Cutin
20. Enteropeptidase enzyme iss present in
A. Saliva B. gastric juice C. pancreatic juice D. intestinal juice E. food marerial
21. The cells which take part in the conduction of water and salts in higher plants
A. Sieve tubes B. Sieve cells C. Trachea D. Companion cells E. stone cells
103. In biotic community, which one of the following is a protective device ?
A. Competition B. Symbiosis C. Mimicry D. Commensalism E. Parassitism
104. Which one of the following is the sedimentaary cycle ?
A. Oxygen cycle B. Nitrogen cycle C.Hydrogen cycle
D. Phosphorous cycle E. Carbon cycle
105. Animals like cockoaches, lizards andd mice share the buildings of human dwellings.
A. Cultigens B. Transplants C. Inquilines D. Humus E. Pelagice
106. The ozone layer is preset in
A. Thermosphere B. Stratosphere C. Mesosphere
D. Lithosphere E. Troposphere
107. The minamata diseases caused by
A. Mercury B. Nitrites C. CFC D. DDT E. Benzene hexachloride
108. The world Enviornment Day is observed on
A. 5th July B. 15th May C. 5th June D. 15th June E. 5th May
109. Which one of the following is not related to corm ?
A. Nodes B. Internodes C. Scale leaves D. Tunica E. Lateral buds
110. When storage roots occur in clusters from the base of the stem they are called
A. Fascicuted roots B. Nodulose roots C. Annulated roots
D. Beaded roots E. Tuberous roots
111. The leaves without petiole are called
A. Sessile B. Petiolate C. Rachis D. Lamina E. Stipula
112. In plant, the parenchyma composed of cells with large air spaces among them , is known as
A. Aerenchyma parenchyma B. Angular parenchyma C. Loosely arranged parenchyma
D. Stellate parenchyma E. Prosenchyma
113. In a young dicot stem, epidermis is covered by a waxy coating called
A. Waxogen B. Cuticle C. Suberin D. Waxilene E. Periderm
114. During drought condition plant produces a hormone known as
A. Indole acetic acid B. Naphthelene acetic acid C. Abscisic acid
D. Indole butyric acid E. Ethylene
115. The term used to determine the age of tree by counting the annual rings is called
A. Ring determination B. Chronology C. Ageing and development
D. Dendro - chronology E. Counto - chronology
116. In a plant cell , the strinking of protoplasm is called
A. Turgidity B. Flaccidity C. Deplasmolysis D. Plasmolysis E. Apoptosis
117. The thin film of water covering the soil particles and held strongly by atractive forces, is called
A. Hygroscopic B. Run - away C. Gravitational D. Capillary E. Hydrophobic
118. In higher plants, the shape of the chloroplast is
A. Discoid B. Cup- shaped C. Girdle - shaped D. Ribbon- shaped E. Reticulate
119. Who among the following scientists was awarded the Noble Prize in 1960 for tracing the path of carbon
in photosynthesis ?
A. Rubin B. Hatch C. Calvin D. Huber E. Dissenhofer
120. In the higher plants , nitrate ion absorbed from the soil are converted into ammonia in two steps. In
second steps, the electrons required for reduction of nitrite ions are donated by
A. Nitrate reductase B. Ferradoxin C. Nitrate reductase
D. Cytochrome P450 E. Cytochrome b5
whole topic biology
1. Artificial induction of roots on stems before it is seperated from the parent plant for propagation is called
A) cutting B) grafting C) Plant tissue culture D) root- stem joint E) layering
2. In the photosynthetic process, PS II absorbs energy at or just below
A. 680nm B. 860nm C. 880nm D. 780nm E. 608nm
3. A flower without the nonessential whorls is called
A. dioecious B. monoecious C. hermaphrodite D. achlamydeous E. Monochlamydeous
4. The pollination with the help of wind is termed as
A. cheiropterophily B. hydrophily C. ornithophily D. anemophily E. entemophily
5. In C4 plants, the primary CO2 acceptor is
A. PEP B. RUBP C. Oxalo acetic accid D. 3 - PGA E. BPRU
6. In some plants, particularly halophytes, the seeds germinate with the fruits while still attached to the parent
plant.Identify this phenominon from the following terms:
A. Vernalization B. Monocarpic C. Vivipary D. Seisonasty E. Halophytosis
7. When petals are free the corolla is called
A. Polypetalous B. Gamopetalous C. Polysepalous D. Gamosepalous E. Apocarpous
8. Which of the following is multinucleated ? A. Non - straited musscle B. Straited muscle
C. Renal tissue D. Nervous tissue E. Erythrocytes of reptiles
9. Nissle granules could be seen in
A. Neurons B. Myofibrils C. Gland cells D. Bone cells E. Eossinophils
10. The fats absorbed from the gut are transported to the blood in the from of
A. Liposomes B. Chemomricrons C. Chylomicrons D. Micelles E. Phagocytes
11. The volume of air breathed in and out during effortless respiration is referred to as.
A. Vital volume B. Residual volume C. Ideal volume D. Normal volume E. Tidal volume
12. Brunner’s glands are found in
A. Stomach B. Iluem C. Colon D. Duodenum E. Rumen
13. During CO2 transport, HCO3 diffuses from erythrocytes to plasma and in turn upsets the ionic equilibrium
momentarily. In order to keep the ionic balance , an equal number of C1- ions pass into the erythrocytes
from plasma . This proces isknown as A. Hamburger phenomenon B. Bicarbonate shift
C. Tranport rate D. Carbonation E. Carbo- chlorosis
14. The pace maker of the heart is
A.Bundle of His B. Purkinje fibres C. A V node D. Pacer cells E. SA node
15. The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction was proposed by
A. A.Pullman andB. pullman B. B. Pullman and A F Huxley C. AF Huxley and HE Huxley
D. A F Huxley and HE Pullman E. R.Hill and D. Arnon
16. In the nerve cells , the reversal of the resting potential is known as depolarization. This occurs due to
A. Influx of Na+ B. influx of K+ C. Influx of Ca2+ and Cl- D. Eflux of Na+
E. Eflux of Ca2+ and 2Cl-
17. The cyccle of reactionss by which muscle lactic acid is transformed to muscle glycogen is
A. Krebs cycle B. Cori cycle C. Glycolysis D. Glyco-lactic cycle E. Calvin cycle
18. During the ovulatory phase, the structure called corpus luteum is formed from
A. Endometrium B. Isogametes C. Epididymis D. Ruptured Graafian follicle E. Cowper’s glands
19. The contraction of one of the muscles rotates the forearm to turn the palm downward or backward.
Identfy the muscle from the following :
A. Pronator B. flexor C. Extensor D. Abductor E. Adductor
20 The cells which secrete male sex hormone testosterone are
A. Isthmus B.Crypt cells C. Lieberkihn D. Islets of Langerhans E. Leydig’s cellls
21. The concentration of inoranic salts in the normal urine of human being is about
A. 0.15% B. 2.5% C. 15.0% D. 0.25% E. 1.5%
22. Which one of the following is not associated with the theory of ageing ? A. Wear and tear
B. Metabolic rate C. Epimorphosis D. Somatic mutations E. Neurohormonal changes
23. The morphogenetic movements change the hollow spherical blastula into a
A. Embryonic disc B. Gastrula C. Morula D. Neurula E. Celluation
24. The growth rate in childhood is controlled by
A. Progesterone B. Oestrogens
C. Testosterone D. Thymosine E. Thyroxine
25. Which of the following cations is required for the conversion of prothrombin into active thrombin by
thromboplastin? A. Ca2+ B. Fe2+
C. Fe3+ D. Cu2+ E. Mg2+
26. Ammonia produced during protein catabolism is converted to uric acid in the liver of
A. Ureotelic animals B. Ammonotelic animals
C. Uricotelic animals
D. Ornithinotelic animals E. Arginotelic animals
27. Red muscles are rich in A. Myoglobin and cytocrome B. Lactic acid andd acetic acid
C. Haemoglobin and glucose D. Only myosin E. Relaxin
28. One of the mendelian concepts states that in the F1 hybrid only one factor of a factor pair is expressed.
The factor not expressed is called
A. Dominant B. Recessive C. Unit character D. Unique factor E. Hidden factor
29. Emasculation is the removal of A. Stigma from the flower of the male parent B. Stamen from the
flower of the female parent C. Calix from the flower of the male parent
D. Calix from the flower of the female parent E. Corolla from the flower of the female parent
30. The backcross of F1 hybrid with the recessive parent is called A. Monohybrid cross B. Reciprocal
cross C. Testcross D. Punnet square cross
E. Dominent-recessive cross
31. The chromosome associated with sex detemination is known as A. Autosomes B. Accessory
chromosomes C. Super numenary chromosome D. Determinant chromosome E. Allosomes
32. The exchange of chromosome segments between non- homologous chromosomes is called
A. Translocation B. Deletion C. Transfer D. Frameshift E. Dislocation
33. In case of Hemophilia, if the carrier daughter (Hh) marries a normal man ‘H’ then among their daughters,
A. 50% will be normal(Hh) and 50% carrier (Hh) B. 50% will be normal (HH)and 50% hemophilic(h)
C. 50% carrier (Hh) and 50% hemophilic(h) D. 25% carrier (Hh)and 75% hemophilic(h)
E. 75% carrier(Hh) and 25% hemophilic(h)
34. Name the scientist who was awarded the Nobel Prize for his genetic studies on the linear arrangement of
genes on chromosome in the fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster.
A. T H Morgan B. C F Wolff C. T A Knight D. J Swammerdam E. R C Punnet 35. In humans philadelphia chromosome results from the reciprocal translocations between chromosome
numbers A. 10 and20 B. 3 and 11 C. 9 and 21 D. 20 and 9 E. 9 and 22
36. Androgenic haploid plants were produced by anther culture first time by A. C. Auerbatchand L J Stadler
B. Sipra Guha and SC Maheswari C. W.Bateson D. C A Ninan E. W. Sutton andd T. Boveri
37. Which of following is an initiation codon ? A. UAA B. AUG C. UAG D. GUA E. AGU
38. RNA polymerase I catalyzes A. tRNA synthesis B. mRNA synthesis C. rRNAsynthesis
D. Elongation in transcription E. Initiation in transcription
39. Okazaki fragments are A. Short DNA fragments on the lagging strand
B. Short DNA fragments on the leading strand C.The RNA primers required for initiation of DNA synthesis
D. The DNA fragment produced due to radiation action E. The DNA fragment resulted from dimerization
40. A mixture of heat kild NL- cells (dead cells) and live L-cells is injected into mice. NL- type cells are
pathogenic, develop a desease and kill the animals. On the other hand L- type cells are non-pathogenic. The
expected result could be A. mice develop desease and die B. mice die without developing
desease C. mice do not develop desease and also do not die D. 50% mice develop desease and die E. All mice remain healthy but loose vision
41. RNA Polymerase which is on the promoter, moves to the structural genes to transcribe them . However , it
happens when A. there is no repressor on the operator B. There is repressor on the operator
C. inducer binds to structural genes D. RNA Polymerase shifts first to regulator gene
E. regulator gene induces promoter
42. Some genes are constantly expressed in bacterial cells. These genes are called
A. link genes B. Jumping genes C. Constitutive genes D. Active genes E. Integrated genes
43. A restriction enzyme called EcoRI from E. Coli is expected to cleavee DNA at the following sequence.
44. Formation of most of the amino acids as well as adenine and other nucleic acid bases from inorganic
molecules was experimentally shown by A. H.C.Urey and S, Miller B. A.I. Oparin and
J.B.S.Hadaene C. Hugo De Vries D. Spallanzani and L.Pasteur E. R.Koch
45. The organs which look different but have the same basic structure and origin are known as
A. Analogous B. Heterologous C. Vestgial
D. Differential E. Homologous
46. On the promitive earth. polymers such as proteins and nuclic acids in aqueous suspension formed the sperical
aggregates . These are called A. Primitosomes B. Liposomes C. Primitogenes D. Coacervates E. Proto- nucleosomes
47. The Jurassic period belongs to the era
A. Cenozoic B. Mesozoic C. Paleozoic
D. Proterozoic E. Archeozoic
48. "The genetic variation s appearing among the members of a population bring about the evolution " This
statement defines:
A. Neo-Darwinism B. Darwinism C. Lamarckism
D. Mutation theory E. theory of vitality
49. Name the antibiotic used in the Lederberg’s replica plating experiment .
A. Erithromycin B. Steptomycin C. Pencillin D. Neomycin E. Tetracycline
50. Allopatric speciation occurs when A. Genetically related populations inhabit widely seperated geographical
area B. Genetically unrelated populations in habit widely seperated geographical area C. Geneticaly
related populations inhabit the same geographical area D. Genetically un- related populations inhabit
the same geographical area E. Genetically mixed populations inhabit the geographical area
51. Which of the following is an example of zoonosis disease of animals that is transmited to man ?
A. Trachoma B. Leprosy C. Diphtheria D. Measles E. Rabies
52. Carcinoma is a cancer of A. Connective tissue B. White blood cells C. Lymphocytes
D. Ectoderm and Endoderm E. Erythrocytes
53. Identify from the following a nitrogen fixing bacteerium which forms a loose association with roots of certain
grasses and maize. A. Anabaena azollae B. Azospirillum lipofermum C. Bacillus polymyxa
D. Clostridium E. Klebsiella
54. AIDS is caused by A. Varicella virus B. Rubeola virus C. Human immunodeficiency virus
D. Cory nebacterium diphtheriae E. Treponemapalladium
55. The treatement of cancer with X-ray or gama -rays is called A. Radiation therapy B. Surgery
C. Chemotherapy D. Hormone therapy E. Immunotherapy
56. The person with Turner’s syndrome has
A. 44autosomes and XXY sex chromosome B. 44 autosomes and XO sex chromosomes
C. 44autosomes and XYY sex chromosomes D. 44 autosomes and XXX sex chromosomes
E. 44 autosomes and YO sex chromosomes
57. Human population grows in geometrical progression where as the quantity of food materials increases in
arithmetic proportion . This was suggested by A. Charles Darwin B. Wlliam Bateson
C. Amartya Sen D. Thomas Robert Malthus E. M.S.Swaminathan
58. The arrangement of atoms and molecular groups in the large molecules such as DNA and RNA can be
studied using
A. Centrifugation B. Spectrophotometer C. X- ray diffraction D. Electronmicroscope
E. Histochemistry
59. The energy currency of a cell is
A. AMP B. ATP C.Carbohydrates D. APT E. NAD
60. A grouping or joining together of smaller components to form large unit is called
A. Inetaction B. Equilibrium C. Change D. Aggregation E. Linkage
61. The phenomenon which helps in maintaining a constant internal environment in living organism is
A. Entropy B. Homeolysis C. Haemolysis D. Apoptosis E. Homeostasis
62. The membrane around the vacuole is called
A. Tonoplast B. Cytoplast C. Amyloplast D. Leucoplast E. Elaroplast
63. The length of one full turn of DNA is
A. 3.4A0 B. 34.0A0 C.20.0A0 D. 3.04A0 E. 2.0A0
64. Apeptide bond formation between two amino acids is accompanied by the
A. Addition of H2O B. Deamination C. Decarboxylation D. Loss of H2O E. Subtitution of H2O
65. Plant cell walls mainly consist of
A. Cellulose B. Starch C. Protein D. Glycogen E. Chloroplast
66. Calcium gives rigidity to bones and teeth together with
A. Oxalates B. Carbonates Pectates D. Sulphates E. Phosphate
67. DNA could be found in
A. Golgi apparatus B. Mitochondria C. Lysosomes D. Peroxisomes E. Endosomes
68. The cells which help in removing the damaged cells in multicellular organisms are
A. Phagocytes B. Pinocytes C. Glyoxysomes D. Liposomes E. Peroxisomes
69. The subunits of prokaryotic ribosomes are
A. 60 S + 40 S B. 80 S + 70 S C. 40 S + 30 S D. 60 S + 50 S E. 50 S + 30 S
70. Microfilaments are composed mainly of a protein called
A. Tubulin B. Chitin C. Actin D. Keratin E. Myosin
71. The nuclear pores , seen in nuclear envelope have a diameter of about
A. 60.00A0 B.00.60A0 C. 06.00A0 D. 600.00A0 E. 60.60A0
72. The spherical head of the oxysomes is
A. F0 subunit B. F1 subunit C. 70 S D. dictyosomes E. granum
73. Which one of the following glycosidic linkages is found in the maltose ?
A. b 1,4 B.a 4,1 C. b 4,1 D. d 1,4
E. a 1,4
74. b- oxidation of fatty acids occurs in A. Glyoxysomes B. Golgi apparatus C. Mitrochondia
D. Microsomes E. Peroxisomes
75. The net energy yield from aerobic respiration in eukaryotic cell is
A. 10ATP B. 30ATP C. 36ATP D.38ATP E. 8ATP
76. Number of mitotic divisions required to produce 128 cells from a single cells is
A. 7 B. 14 C. 8 D. 16 E. 32
77. The small part of chromosome arm beyond secondary constriction is called
A. Kinetochore B. Chromonemata C. Satellite D. Centromere E. Telomere
78. Enzymes differing in molecular wt , amino acid composotion and in their sequences but having the same
substrate specificity are known as
A. Isozymes B. zymogens C. Coenzymes D. Lysozymes E. Endoenzymes
79. Which of the following is associated with the structure of Golgi complex ?
A. Cristae B. Annuli C. Cisternae D. Quantasomes E. Spheroplast
80. The five kingdom classification was proposed by
A. Aristotle B. Linnaeus C. Cuvier D. Haeckel E. Whittaker
81. The plasma membarne of mycoplasma (PPLO) is rich in
A. Glycogen B. Cholestrol C. Myosin D. Cellulose
E. Mycosin
82. The respiratory enzymes in the aerobic bacteria are located mainly in
A. Chondrioids B. Mitochondria C. Polysomes D. phagosomes E. Spherosomes
83. Which of the following definitions covers a greater number of organisms ?
A. Class B. Genus C. Family D. Order E. Phylum
84. In Nepenthes, the pitcher is a modified
A. Leaf tip B. Leaf lamina C. Lower part of the petiole
D. Upper part of the petiole E. Stem
85. Pseudomonas rubrilineans causes red stripe desease in
A. Sugarcane B. Carrot C. Cotton D. Wheat E. Rice
86. The fungi imperfecti is called A. Ascomycetes B. Basideomycetes C. Deuteromycetes
D. Fruticose lichens E. Rhizopus stolonifer
87. Algae which grow on animals and also occur on shells of molluscs or other invertebrates are called
A. Epizoic B. Parasitic C. Epiphytic D. Sea Lettuce E. Coenobia
88. Name the fern whose leaf tip produces roots when touches the soil and known as ‘walking fern’
A. Dryopteris B. Adiantum C. Pteris D. Nephrolepis E. Camptosorus
89. The tusks of elephant are modified from of
A. Canine B. Molar C. Skull D. Incisors E. Snout
90. The flight muscles of bird are attached to
A.. Keel B. Clavicle C. Scapula D. Coracoid E. Hind limb bone
91. The marsupium is a characteristic of
A. Metatheria B. Chiroptera C. Rodentia D. Carnivora E. Edenta
92. The phylum arthropoda is characterized by A. Unjointed appentages B. Jointed appentages
C. Underdeveloped appendages D. Absence of appendages E. The presence of flame cells
93. Which of the following reptiles has four champered heart ?
A. turtle B. Sphenodon C. King cobra D. Calotes E. Crocodile
94. An animal having unsegmented coelomated and radially symmetrical body with distinct oral and aboral
surfaces is member of
A. Echinodermata B. Mollusca C. Annelida D. Arthropoda E. Porifera
95. A fat called blubber could be obtained from
A. Dolphin B. Porpoises C. Bats D. Blue whale E. Shark
96. Which one of the following is not a member of the group called Eutheria ?
A. Mole B. Squirrel C. Pangolin D. Gorilla E. Platypus
97. The permanent decrease in population number occurs due to
A. Migration B. Emigration C. Natality D.Territoriality E. Mortality
98. The relationship between two organisums in which one obtains some benefit at the expense of the other is
called A. Parasitism B. Predation C. Symbiosis
D. Scavenging E. Commensalism
99. " The grass Lands in Asia are known as
A. Steppes B. Veldt C. Pampas D. Prarries E. Savanch
100. The factors involved in the formation of new species are
A. Isolation and mutation B. Isolation and competition C. Competitions and mutations
D. Competation and variations E. Isolation and variation
101. Under the anaerobic conditions denitrifying bacteria such as Pseudomonas could convert
A. Nitrates to ammonia B. Nitrites to nitrates C. Nitrates to molecular nitrogen
D. Nitrates to nitrites E. Molecular nitrogen to nitrates
102. On the earth the amound of carbon fixed by photosynthesis is nearly
A. 7 X 1013gper year B. 7 X 1013kg per year C. 70 X 1013 kg per year
D. 7 X 1010 kg per year E. 7 X 1024 kg per year
Origin of Life
1. Special creation theory was proposed by
a. Plato b. Aristotle c . Father suarez d. Thales
2. A biogenesis means
a. Origin of life from non-living organisms b. Origin of life from living organisms
c. Origin of viruses and microbes d. Spontaneous generation
3. Theory of spontaneous generation (A biogenesis) was proposed by
a. Thomson b. Redi c. Anaximander d. Haldane
4. Cosmozoic theory was proposed by
a. Oparin b. Richter c. Arrhenius d. Pasteur
5. Cosmic Panspermia theory was proposed by
a. Plato b. Reddi c. Arrhenius d. Thales
6. Biogenesis was proposed by
a. Francesco Redi b. Van Helmont c. Pasteur d. Oparin
7. Cosmozoic theory was supported by
a. Thomson b. Arrhenius c. Helmholtz d. All of these
8. Modern theory of origin of life was proposed by
a. Oparin b. Haldane c. Both oparin and Haldane d. None of the above
9. The Book "The Origin of life" was written by
a. Darwin b. Opoarin c. Hugo de Vries d. Lamarck
10. Haldane was born in
a. France b. Germany c. England d. America
11. Who called water of primitive sea as prebiotic soup?
a. Haldane b. Oparin c. Fox d. Huxley
12. Oparin’s Theory is based on
a. Artificial synthesis b. Spontaneous generation c. God’s will d. All
13. Coacervates were named by
a. Haldane b. Oparin c. Preyer d. Bondi
14. The first photosynthetic organisms were
a. Diatoms b. Cyanobacteria c. Protists d. Eubacteria
15. Which of the following were first formed?
a. Eobionts b. Coacervates c. Genes d. Bacteria
16. Coacervates could multiply by
a. Sexual reproduction b. Producing spores c. Fission d. Budding
17. Coacervates were created in laboratory by
a. Spallanzani b. Oparin and Fox c. Pasteur d. Haldane
18. The first life is believed to be originated
a. On land b. In air c. In water d. All of these
19. Miller and Urey let their experiment run
a. Continuously for one week b. Continuously for one fortnight
c. Continuously for one mont d. Discontinuously for one month
20. Life originated in the
a. Precambrian Period b. Proterozoic Era c. Mesozoic Era d. Coenozoic
21. Earth was formed abot
a. 1600 million years ago b. 2600 million ago
c. 3600 million years ago d. 4600 million years ago
22. Synthesis of amonoacids to prove that amonoacids were formed in primitive ocean, was experimentally proved by
a. Sydney Fox b. Oparin c. Haldane d. Stanley miller
23. Russian scientist who proposed the theory of orgin of life was?
a. Oparin b. Haldane c.Miller d. Fox
24. Who said that organisms develop from preexistig organisms?
a. Aristotle b. Louis Pasteur c.Oparin d. Morgan
25. Which is the age of procaryotic microbes?
a. Precambrian b. Proterozoic c. Azoic d. Palaeozoic
26. First photosyntheitic organisms to appear on earth were
a. Bacteria b. Green alga c. Cyanobacteria d. Bryophytes
27. A compound having very important role in prebiotic evolution was
a. SO2 b. CH4 c. SO3 d. NO
28. The primitive earth conditions were experimentally shown by
a. Oparin b. Urey c. Millar d. Both b and c
29. Under certain conditions scientists have obtained cell like structures. These are known as
a. Microbes b. Protists c. Coacervates d. Prebiotic soup
30. Chemical theory of origin of life was given by
a. Louis Pasteur b. Oparin and Haldane c. Stanley Miller d. Spallanzani
1. Apples are wrapped in waxed paper to
a) Prevent sunlight from changing the colour b) Prevent aerobic respiration
c) Make the apple look costly d) Prevent Ethylene formation that hastens ripening e) None of these
2. A plant hormon that influences sex of flowers in cucurbita
a) GA3 b) IAA c) ABA d) IPA e) Ethylene
3. Richmond long effect is shown by
a) Auxins b) Kinetin c) Gibberlling d) Suger e) Ethylene
4. The paratonic movement due to electric current
a) Aniemotaxis b) Thigmnotaxis c) Galvanotaxis d) Rheotaxis e) None of these
5. Anthesin is
a) Flowering of plant b)Synthetic hormone c) Hormone essential for flowerinng d) All of these
e) None of these
6. Optimum temperature range for plant growth
a) 5-150C b) 20-350C c) 28-300C d) 15-300C e) 10-280C
7. Kinetin is a) Indol Butyric acid b) Indol acetic acid
c) 6- furfuryl amino purine d) Butyric acid e) None of these
8. The enzyme causes softening of fruit wall
a) Protease b) Cellulose c) Amylase d) Nuclease e) Lipase
9. Seedless fruits can be obtained by spraying
a) GA b) IAA c) Florigen d) Anthesin e) Vernalin
10. Healing of injurry in plants is due to the secretion of
a) ABA b)GA c) Traumatic acid d) Folic acid e) None of these
11. Xerochassy is
a) Tropic movement b) Nastic movement c) Tactic movement
d) Hygroscopic movement e) None of these
12. Programmed cell death is
a) Apoptosis b) Apomixis c) Apolysis d) Amphimixis e) Abscission
13. The commercial source of Ethylene
a) Aspirin b) Vinegar c) Ethephone d) All of these e) None of these
14. The principal natural Auxin in plants
a) IBA b) IAA c) IPA d) NAA e) 2,4-D
15. The pollen movement towards micropyle,
a) Thigmotropic b) Chemotaxis c) Chemotropic d) Phototropic e) None of these
16. Size of fruits can be increased by
a) Defolation b) Hormone application c) Detopping d) Prooning e) All of these
17. Plants growing in shades are taller
a) It is due to low Auxin formation b) It is due to high concentration of Auxin
c) It is due to low concentration of kinetin d) It is due to phototropism e) None of these
18. Double sigmoid curve is found in the growth of
a) Fruits b) Flowers c) Inflorescence d) Leaves e) Bud
19. A green plant turn yellow due if placed in darkness. This is called
a) Phototropism b) Dormany c) Chlorosis d) Etiolation e) Mosaicism
20. The movement due to the response of air current
a) Anemotaxis b) Thermotaxis c) Phototaxis d) Galvanotaxis e) Rheotaxis
21. Linear growth can be measured by
a) Auxanometer b) Galvanometer c) Axanometer d) None of these e) All of these

1. Photosynthesis maximum in
a) Blue light b) Green light c) Red light d) Viv light e) Yellow light
2. Which one is a C4 plant ? a) Potato b) Pea c) Rice d) Carrot e) Maize
3. Both Photosynthesis and respiration require
a) Sun light b)Green light c) Organic substrate d) ytochrome e)Co2
4. Hills reaction takes place in
a) Dark b) Light c)Dark & Light d)Any time e) C4 plant
5. The number of chlorophyll in a quantosome is
a) 500- 600 b) 200 -300 c) 50- 150 d) 400 - 500 e) 150 - 200
6. ATP molecules require for C3 pathway equals
a) 18 b) 30 c) 36 d) 38 e) 32
7. Source of O2 in Photosynthesis is
a) Co2 b) H2o c) Chloroplast d) NADP e) None of these
8. RQ of fat is
a) Morethan one b) One c) Lessthan one d) Zero e) None of these
9. Instantaneous source of energy is
a) Amino acid b) Fat c) Proteins d) Glucose e) None of these
10. The universal hydrogen acceptor is
a) ATP b) FMN c) Co-A d) NAD e) All of these
11. Which is the finalelctron acceptor in Respiration
a) Cytochromes b) Hydrogen c) Oxygen d) H2O e) Unknown accepter
12. Which of the following can respire with out oxygen
a) Fish b) Potato c) Chlorella d) Rhizopus e)Yeast
13. Total ATP production in EMP pathway is
a) 24 b) 8 ATP c) 6 d) 4 e) 2
14. The connecting link between EMP and Krebs cycle
a) Glucose b) ATP c) Lactic acid d) Pyruvic acid e) None of these
15. The net energy yield from aerobic respiration in enlcariotes is
a) 10ATP b) 30 ATP c) 38 ATP d) 34 ATP e) 36 ATP
1. Chresard refers to
a. available water b. Runaway water c. The total water present in soil d. unavailable water
2. Guard cells are
a. Semilunar b. dump - bell c. Kidney shaped
d. Semilunar/dump-ball/kidneyshaped e. None of the above
3. The mineral engaged in stomatal movement
a. Calcium b. Iron c. Pottassium d. All the above e. None of the above
4. Guttation takes place through
a. Hydathodes b. Stomata c. Lenticel d. All the above e. None of the above
5. Which of the following is not an antitranspirant
a. ABA b. PMA c. Aspirin d. Wax e. None of these
6. The water potential of pure water is taken as
a. Zero b. -1 c. +1 d. None of these
7. Cohesion tension theory is putward by
a. Kramer b. Calvin c. Dixon & Jolly d. Hill e. None of the above
8. The water that is held in the pores of the soil against the force of gravity
a. Gravitational water b. capillary water c. Hygroscopic water d. None of these
9. The covering of vacuole is
a. Plasma membrane b. Cell sap c. Vacuoplast d. Tonoplast e. None of these
10. Active absorption
a. Requires energy b. Doesnot require energy
c. Requires no absorbing structures d. None of these
11. Water potential is represented by
a. Y s b. Y p c. Y w d. Y or Y w e. S
12. Water is absorbed mainly through
a. The roots b. Leaves c. Root hairs d. Stomata
13. Guttated water is
a. Pure b. With dissolved salts c. In vapour form d. Reabsorbed by the plants
14. The strong affinity of vessels for water is called
a. Cohesion b. Tension c. Adhesion d. Attraction e. Inhibition
15. Rapid transpiration may cause
a. Increased rate of absorption b. wilting c. increased ascent of sap
d. All the above e. None of the above.
Specious and population Environmental factors Ecosystem
1. Which one is the famous ecologist in India
a. M.S. Swaminathan b. M.G.K. Menon c. R.P. Mishra d. J.C. Bose e. Birbal Sahni
2. Animal found in herds is- a. Swan b. Mice c. Deer d. Parri e. Dog
3. Synecology in the study of
a. Human environment b. Biotic environment c. Abiotic component
d. Biotic community e. Specious and environment
4. The term ecology was coined by: a. Odum b. Hackel c. Hooker d. Lorenz e. Eugenies
5. Sudy of inter-relationship between organism and environment is
a. Ecology b. Ethology c. Ecosystem d. Phytogeography e. Eugenics
6. Hinny is derived from : a. Male donkey and mare b. Stallin and Female donkey
c. Lion and tigress d. Tiger and Lioness e. Male donkey and female zebra
7. Worker termites are
a. Larva b. Adolesent c. Adult male d. Adult female e. Sterile female
8. Physalia shows
a. Dimorphism b. Mimierry c. Metanerism d. Trimerism e. Polymorphism
9. Species ecology is
a. Synecology b. Anecology c. Paleocology d. Ammunity ecology e. Ethology
10. Competition between individuals of a population is
a. Intraspeerfic b. Interspecific c. Intergeneric d. Local e. Aggressive
11. Pedology is the study of
a. Rocks b. Locomoties is animals c. Crop diseases d. Soil e. Animal feet
12. Myrmecophily is found in
a. Acacia b. Zizyphus c. Pisum d. Coconut d. Duranta
13. Vivipary is charactoristic of
a. Mesophyter b. Halophytes c. Xe phytes d. Hydrophytes e. Parasites
14. Plant growing well in full sunlight are
a. Sciophytes b. Hydrophytes c. Xi phytes d. Heliophytes e. Halophytes
15. All giving organism on or around the earth constitute
a. Population b. Community c. Ecosystem d. Bioshphere e. Eiome
16. Whcidh biome is treeless
a. Tundra b. Temperat c. Tropical d. Savannah e. Disert
17. Organisms living at the bottom of a lake are called
a. Benthons b. Nektons c. Zooplankton d. Phyloplankton e. Littorals
18. Which one is an edaphic facto
a. Wind b. Soil c. Light d. Rainfall e. Microorganism
19. Nepenthes is-
a. Primary produces b. Consumer c. Decomposer
d. Primary producer and consumer e. Secondary consumer
20. The driving force or ecosystem is
a. Biomass b. Produces c. Solar energy d. Carbohydrate e. Soil
21. Ecosystem creator
a. Food chain b. Food web c. Both a and b d. Non of the above e. Population
22. Which is the most stable ecosystem
a. Mountain b. Ocean c. Desert d. Rain e. Lake
23. The importance of ecosystem lies in
a. Producers b. Flow of energy c. Cyeling or materials d. Both b and c e. None of these
24. On barren socks, pioneers of xerosere succession are
a. Algae b. Furgi c. Lichin d. Moss e. Bacteria
25. Which of the following term can b related to Homo sapiens
a. Herbivory b. Carnivore c. Autotroph d. Trugivore e. Omnbivore
26. The amount of living matter present in an ecosystem at a given time is called
a. Standing crop b. Productivity c. Biomass d. Energy flow e. Introphication
27. In food chain the largest population is that of
a. Producers b. consumers c. Decomposes d. Seavergers e. Teritiary consumers
28. Which are is natures cleaners
a. Producers b. Decomphosers c. Consumers d. Carnivores e. Omnivores
29. The term ecosystem was coined by; a. Tansley b. Reiten c. Haeckel d. Watson e. Odum
30. The concept of ecological pyramid was developed by
a. Iarwin b. Reita c. Elton d. Odum 3. Hacekel.
Origin of life
1. Spontaneous generation - abiogenesis
Proposed by Aristotle. According to this theory life, originates spontaneously from lifeless matter or non-living things
Eg:- Fishes originated from mud, insects from decaying meat, frogs from moist soil etc.
Louis Pasteur, by his swan-necked flask experiment proved that abiogenesis is not true
(ii) Biogenesis:- Proposed by Fransisco Redi. According to this theory life originates from pre-existing life only. This theory was also supported by Spallanzani and Louis Pasteur
Cosmic theory / Theory of panspermia - proposed by Ritcher
According to this theory the life is distributed through out the cosmos in the form of resistant "spores" or "seeds" known as cosmozoa. These cosmozoa reached the earth and on getting favourable condition, they developed in to organism.
The occurrence of two or more different forms of an organism in the same species or population is called polymorphism.
Features of polymorphism
1. It is the presence of two or more morphological Froms in a species
2. It is due to the existence of different types of genotypes
3. It helps the species to survive efficiently in a variety of environments.
4. The different forms are adapted to the different environments. Each of which is superior in a particular habitat.
Eg:- Blood group of man- Based on blood groups, there are four morphs such as type A, type B, type AB, and type O. All these are determined by different genotypes
Balanced polymorphism
The preservation of genetic variability by heterozygosity is called balanced polymorphism
Eg:- Sickle cell anemia
In man the production of haemoglobin is controlled by the dominant genes - HbA HbA. When this genes are present in the recessive condition ie, HbsHbs, an abnormal haemoglobin is produced and the result is sickle cell anemia. The heterozygous condition ie, HbAHbs do not produce any harm. Moreover a heterozygous individual is not infected by malaria, because the sickle shaped RBC kill the malarial parasite which enter into it. Thus the heterozygous individuals are resistance to malaria.
Species are the groups of actually potentially interbreeding natural population that are reproductively isolated from other such groups. It is the basic unit of classification the salient features of a species.
1. Species is amendelian population or a biological unit.
2. Members of species possess distinct morphological features.
3. The memvers of a species are reproductively isolated from other species.
4. The members interbreed among themselves.
5. They share a common gene pool
Sub - species
It is defined as geographically isolated population of a species, which are capable of interbreeding and produce fertile hybrids.
Eg:- The bird golden whistler pachyce phala - pectoralis.
Sibling species
Morphologically similar but reproductively isolated species is known as sibling species. Eg:- Drosophila pseudoobseura and Drosophila persimilis, the two species of fruitfly (Drosophila) do not cross-fertilize.
The process of formation of new species is called speciation. There are allopatric speciation and sympatric speciation
1. Allopatric speciation
When two populations inhabit geographically or spatially separated ares, they are called allopatric population. The evolution of such populations into separate species is called sympatric speciation.
The segregation of populations into smaller units sections to prevent interbreeding is known as isolation. It is classified them into reproductive isolation and geographic isolation.
Reproductive isolation
Any genetically determined agency that prevents in tebreeding is called reproductive isolation. The reproductive isolation may be of two types. They are premating or prezygotic isolation and postmating or postzygotic isolation Reproductive isolation results sympatric speciation.
a. Pre-mating isolation
This is the external reproductive isolation which prevents inter specific mating. It includes seasonal isolation, eclogical isolation etc.
b. Post-mating isolation
This is the internal reproductive isolation which reduces the formation of zygotes or hybrids. It is due to zygote mortality, hybrid sterility etc.
Geographical isolation
In this isolation, two populations are separated by some barriers such as mountain ranges, deserts, thick forests land bridges or water connections etc. Geographical isolation results in allopatric speciation.
Homologous organs and homology
The organs which are fundamentally similar in structure and origin but adapted for different functions are called homologous organs and this phenomenon is called homology
eg:- Whale’s flipper bat’s wing horse’s foot, cat’s paw, and the human hand. All these perform different function and look superficially different, but are constructed on the same plan
Such homologous anatomical structure implies a common ancestry.
The origin of homologous organs due to adaptive radiation from a common ancestor, is known as divergent evolution
Analogous organ and analogy
The organs which have similar function but differ in structure and origin are called analogous organs and this phenomenon is called analogy are analogous organs. The origin of analogous organs due to adaptations for life in similar habits, is known as convergent evolution.
Vestigial organs
The organs which are non-functional in the pre-sent day animals but were functional in their ancestors and in related animals, are called vestigial organs
Eg:- Vermiform appendix, nictiating membrane, muscles of external ear, coccyx, wisdom teeth, body hair in male etc.
Genetic drift
The random changes in the allele frequency occuring by chance in small populations are called genetic drift. It was described by sewall - wright in 1931. Hence it is all so called Sewall - wright effect. Due to genetic drift some genes are preserved or destroyed irrespective of their quality in small population..
Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium
Proposed by G.H. Hardy and W-Weinberg, which states that in a large population, the gene frequencies of various kinds of gene, remain constant generation after generation if matiny is at random and in the absence of evolutioning forces like mutation, selection and migration. This Hardy-Weinberg is also known as Hardy-weinsberg equilibrium because the gene frequencies in a population are maintained in a state of equilibrium. Evolution occurs only when this equilibrium is upset ie evolution is a departure from Hardy - Weinberg Equilibrium.
Palaeontological evidences
Fossil is the dead remains of the past. It include bones teeth shells and other hard parts and also impressions or imprints left by some previous organs. Fossils are the direct and concrete evidences of evolution. It is also regarded as the written documents of evolution. The process of preservation of organisms or their parts in the form of fossils is known as fossilisation.
The study of fossil is called paleantology it includes plaeozoology (fossil Animals) and paleobotany any (fossil plants). Leonardo da Vinci is considered as the father of palaeontology.
Significance of fossils
2. They help to study the structure, form traits and behaviour of extinct animals .
3. They given an idea above the form and structure of extinct animals
4. They help to study the phylogeny (evolution any history race history) of some Animals such as horse, camels, man etc.
5. Fossils indicate the connecting link between two groups of organisms.
For eg:- Archaeopterix, the fossil bird shows the features of both reptiles and birds. Therefore the connecting with link between birds and reptiles.
6. The time in history when different species were formed or became extinct can be inferred through the analysis of the distribution of fossils in different strait of rocks.
1. It is process of simplification of insoluble complex foodmaterials into soluble simple food materials, for easy absorbtion. It involves physical (mechanical) and chemical breakdown of various food materials . During the process carbohydrate is converted into glucose, proteins are converted into amino acids and lipids are converted into fatty acid and glycerol.
Types of digestion
Digestion is classified into two types, based on the site where digestion of occurs. They are
1. Intracellular digestion - When digestion takesplace inside the cells, it is called intracellular digestion. In this type, the cell engulfs food materials by endocytosis. Then they are digested by the enzymes inside the cells and the digested products diffuse into the cytoplasm.
Eg:- Protozoans and sponges
2. Extra cellular digestion:- When digestion takesplace outside the cells, It is called extracellular digestion. All the animals provided with alimentary canal exhibit extracellular digestion. Here digestion occurs inside the lumen of alimentary canal.
Digestive system:- It consists of alimentary canal and digestive glands.
Alimentary canal:- It includes mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus.
Mouth is surrounded by lips. It leads into buccal cavity which contain teeth and tongue. The tongue is essential for ingestion, mastication, deglutition, taste and speech.
The teeth are thecodont- placed in sockets and heterodont - there are four types of teeth present, (i) cheisel shaped incisors used for cutting the food materials (ii) dagger shaped canines employed for tearing or piercing the food materials, (iii) premolars and (iv) molars. The last two types are used for grinding the foodmaterials. Therefore known as grinders.
The bucculcavity receives the duct of three pairs of salivary glands -- parotid , submaxilary and sublingual glands - produce saliva, which contain a starch digesting enzyme ptyalin (salivary amylase)
The buccul cavity leads into pharynx, the common chamber for digestive and respiratory systems. It leads into oesophagus, which distally opens into stomach.
The stomach is J shaped and consists of cardiac, fundic and pyloric parts. Fundus is the main stomach. Pyloric stomach is also known as antrum. The stomach is provided with the large number of gastric glands which produce gastric juice. The gastric gland consists of oxyntic cells (parietal cells) - produce hydrochloric acid, chiefcells or zymogen cells or peptic cells - produce pepsin and rennin and mucous cells - produce mucous. The pyloric stomach opens into the small intestine by pyloric orifice, gaurded by pyloric sphincter.
The small intestine has three regions . U shaped first part is known as duodenum, receives a common bile duct from pancreas and liver. The jejunum followes duodenum and is longer and more coiled. The last part- ileum is also highly coiled and opens into the large intestine. The small intestine is provided with large number of intestinal glands (crypts of Liberkuhn) produce intestinal juice or succuss entericus.
At the junction of small intestine and large intestine there is a finger like structure called vermiform appendix. It is vestigeal in man but involved in immune mechanism by producing lymphocytes and antibodies.
The large intestine consists of colon and rectum. Human colon consists of an ascending colon, a transverse colon, a descending colon and a pelvic colon. The pelviccolon continues into the rectum which opens to the exterior through the anus. The large intestine secretes no enzymes but serves to store unabsorbed food materials temporarly It also helps for the absorbtion of water.

Monday, April 7, 2008

1. Diaphragm is not found in
a. Rabbit b. Man c. Bat d. Frog
2. Salamander is a a. Mollusc b. Echinoderm c. Bird d. Amphibian
3. What is not found in the amphibian skin?
a. Epidermis b. Mucous glands c. Scales d. Chromatophores
4. Which is limbless amphibian ?
a. Alytes b. Hyla c. Ichthyophis d. Phyllobotamus
5. The glands present in the skin of frog are
a. Sweat and mammary b. Sweat and sebaceous c. Sweat and mucous d. Mucous and poisonous
6. Bull frog of India is
a. Rana tigrina b. R. Sylvatica c. R. Ecutesbeiana d. R. Esculenta
7. Amphibian heart is made up of
a. One auricle and two ventricles b. Two auricles and one ventricle
c. One sinus venosus, one auricle and one ventricle d. Two auricles and two ventricles
8. Age of Amphibians was
a. Silurian period b. Carboniferous c. Devonian period d. Permian period
9. Tailed amphibians belong to the order
a. Apoda b. Anura c. Tetrapoda d. Urodela
10. A neotenic larva is found in
a. Ambyostoma b. Hyla c. Rhacophorus d. Salamander
11. Asolotl larva of Ambyostoma normally fails to metamorphose due to
a. Lack of Ca and Mg ions in water b. Absence of phosphorus in water
c. Lack of iodine in water of diet d. High concentration of iodine in the body
12. During evolution in which of the following groups, pentadactyl limbs appeared first?
a. Amphibians b. Reptiles c. Birds d. Mammals
13. Lack of tail and paired appendages are the characteristic feature of order
a. Apoda b. Anura c. Urodela d. None of these
14. Frogs and toads belong to order
a. Apoda b. Anura c. Stegocephalia d. Urodela
15. Flying frog is the common name of
a. Alytes b. Bufo c. Hyla d. Rhacophorus
16. Skull of amphibian has occipital condyles numbering
a. Nil b. One c. Two d. Four
17. The common name of Necturus is
a. Cave salamander b. Congo eel c. Hell bender d. Mud-puppy
18. Which one of the following is a limbless amphibian
a. Amphiuma (Congo eel) b. Crytobranchus (Hell bender)
c. Necturus (Mud-pkuppy) d. Uraeotyphlus (Blind worm)
19. Which of the following is not an amphibian?
a. Frog b. Tortoise c. Salamander d. Toad
20. In frog which are the typical vertebrae, numbering..........
a. Ist b. 2nd to 7th c. 8th and 9th d. All of these
21. In frog the typical vertebrae are
a. Procoelous b. Acoelous c. Amphicoelous d. Amphiplatyan
22. What is the total number of vertebrae in frog? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 13
23. Frog undergo hibernation during
a. Autumb b. Rainy season c. Summer d. Winter
24. The kidneys of frog are
a. Holonephros b. Mesonephros c. Metanephros d. Pronephros
25. Metamorphisis in frog can be accelerated by
a. I2 b. P c. K d. Ca


1d 2d 3 c 4 c 5 d 6 a 7 b 8b 9d 10 a 11c 12 a 13a 14 b 15 d 16 c 17 d 18 d 19 b 20 b 21 a 22 c 23 d 24 b 25 a

Saturday, April 5, 2008

1. Hydra is..........
a) Acoelomate b) Pseudocoelomate c) Eucopelmoate d) None
2. The cavity of Hydra is
a) Haemocoel b) Hydrocoel c) Pseudocoelom d. Gastro- vascular cavity
3. Which one is found in Hydra
a) Metabolism b) Metamerism c) Mouling d) Metamorphosis
4. In Hydra, the Coelenteron serves for a) Locomotion and excretion b) Excretion and Circulation
c) Digestion and circulation d) Digestion and storage
5. The chief function of nematocysts in Hydra is
a) To paralyse its prey b) To test the quality of water
c) To capture its pray d) To test the quality of food
6. The small green plant that live inside the body of Hydra as a symbiont is
a) Volvox b) Chlamydomonas c) Englena d. Zoochorellae
7. The structure through which the mouth of Hydra opens is
a) Tentacle b) Oral hood c) Hypostome d) Basal disc
8 . Tentaculocysts in Obelia are meant for
a) Locomotion b) Balancing c) Swimming d) Reproduction
9. Penetrant, volvent and glutient are types of
a) Walking organs in Hydra b) Nematocysts in Hydra
c) Defensive organelles in Paramecium d) Parts of a leg of Cockroach
10. Body wall of Hydra is made up of
a) Ectoderm and endoderm b) Ectoerm, mesoderm, endoderm
c) Ectoderm, mesogloea, endoderm d) Mesoderm and endoderm
11 . Digestion in Hydra is a) Intra- Cellular b) Extra-cellular
c) First extra cellular and then intracellular d) First intra cellular, and then extra cellular
2. In Hydra, the ovary contains
a) Few ova b) Single ovum c) No ovum d) Many ova
13. The mesogloea of Hydra contains
a) Nerve cells b) Sensory Cells c) Muscle fibres d) No cells
14. One of the following mainly forms coral reef
a) Hydrozoans b) Schyphozoans c) Anthozoans d) None
15. Hydranth is
a) Polyp of Obelia b) Medusa of Obelia c) Blastostyle of Obelia d) None of the above
16. Poisonous fluid of nematocyst of Hydra is
a) Hipnoglobin b) Hypnotoxin c) Venom d) Hyalosecretion
17. Favorite food of Hydra is
a) Water flea b) Bacteria c) Fingerlings d) Nematode larvae
18. In Hydra one of the following is correct
a) One ovary and one testis b) Two Ovary and two testis
c) One ovary and many testis d) Many ovaries and single testis
19. Type of muscle in Hydra
a) Skeletal muscles b) Smooth muscles c) Both d) None
20. Planula is larva of a) Hydra b) Obelia c) Both d) None
21. Point out a non-parasitic
a) Sea Anemone b) Fresh Water leech c) Taenia solium d) Bed bug
22. In sea anemone, the symmetry is
a) Radial b) Spherical c) Bilateral d) Absent
23. Organ pipecoral is
a) Tubipora b) Physalia c) Helipora d) Astrea
24. Red Coral is a) Corallium b) Fungia c) Meandrina d) Tubipora
25. Mushroom coral is
a) Fungia b)Astrea c) Aurelia d) Pennatula

1a 2 d 3 a 4c 5a 6 d 7 c 8 b 9 b 10 c 11 c 12 b 13 d 14 c 15 a 16 b 17 a 18 c 19 b 20 b21 a 22 a 23 a 24 a 25 a 26 a 27 c 28 a 29 a 30 b
1. Name Porifera is given by
a) Aristotle b) Robert Grant c) Lamarck d) None
2. Choanocyte cells are characteristics of
a) Jelly fishes b) Sponges c) Platyhelminthes d) All the above
3. Canal system is found in
a) Coelenterata b) Enchinodermata c) Porifera d) All the above
4. In Leucosolenia, asexual reproduction takes place by
a) Binary fission b) Sporulation c) External budding (gemmation) d) Cyst formation
5. The gameters in sponges develop from
a) Amoebocytes b) Archeocytes c) Choanocytes d) Myocytes
6. Phylogenetically, the sponges have evolved from:
a) Protozoans b) Flagallates c) Choanoflagellates d) Ciliates
7. In sponges, the food is stored in :
a) Trophocytes b) Thesocytes c) Desmocytes d) Archeocytes
8. Which of the cells are found in sponges only
a) Amoebocytes b) Chromocytes c) Choanocytes d) Archeocytes
9. Which one of the sponge corresponds to the mouth of other animals
a) Osculum b) Incurrent canal c) Ostia d) Excurent canal
10. A chamber common to all types of canal system of sponges is called:
a) Paragastric cavity b) Radial chamber c) Excurrent canal d) Incurrent canal
11. If a carmine particle is put on the osculum of a living sponge, it will
a) Be ingested b) Be thrown away c) Rotate d) Adhere
12. Canal System in Leucosolenia is a)Asconoid b) Syconoid c) Leuconoid d) Rhagon
13. The digestion of Leucosolenia is
a) Intercellular b)flntracellular c) Extracellular d) Holozoic
14. The Skeleton of sponges is mostly formed by
a) Myocytes b) Chromocytes c) Porocytes d) Scleroblasts
15. The outer epithelium of the sponges is composed
a) Choanocytes b) Amoebocytes c) Pinacocytes d) Chromocytes
16. Pinacocytes are found in the body of a) Snail b) Rabbit c) Sponge d) Hydra
17. Middle layer of body wall of porifera is:
a) Mesoderm b) Mesenchyme c) Mesogloea d) Mesentery
18. The spongocoel in Leucosolenia is lined by
a) Amoebocytes b) Choancoytes c) Scleroblasts d) Pinacocytes
19. The larva of Leucosolenia is
a) Parenchymula b) Planula c) Amphiblastula d) Archeoblastula
20. The larva of Sycon is a) Parenchymula b) Planula c) Amphiblastula d) Redia
21. Exogenous budding a type of asexual reproduction in sponges is known as
a) Gemmulation b) Gemmation c) Regeneration d) Amphimixis
22. Endogenous budding is
a) Gemmule formation b) Gamets formation c) Gemmation d) Endomixis
23. Spongilla is a) Marine sponge b) Fresh water sponge c) No sponge d) Parasitic sponge
24. Spongacoel is also known as
a) Paragastric cavity b) Gastro-vascular cavity c) Water vascular cavity d) Coelenteron
25. The body wall of sponges has many a) Pores b) Gemmules c) Oscula d) Trophocytes
26. Venus flower Basket is
a) Euplectella b) Chalina c) Hyalonema d) Hippospongia
27. Excretory waste of Leucosolenia and sycon is a) Ammonia b) Urea c) Guianine d) Uric Acid
28. Maximum power of regeneration is found in
a) Sponge b) Hydra c) Starfish d) None
29. Spicules in sponges are made up of a) CaCO3 b) silica C) Both d) None
30. Tissue grade is absent in one of the following
a) Sponges b) Protozoans C) Both d) None

1B 2 B 3C 4C 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 C9 C 10 A 11 B 12 A 13 B 14 D 15 C 16 C 17 B 18 B 19 A 20 C 21 B 22 A 23 B 24 A 25 A 26 A 27 A 28 A 29 C 30 C
Phylum - Platyhelminthes

1 . Which of the following systems is absent in a flatworm?
A. Circulatory B. Excretory C. Digestive D. Reproductive
2. Phylum Platyhelminthes comprises of these classes except
A. Cestoda B. Nematoda C. Turbellaria D. Trematoda
3. Planarians are
A. Ectoparasites B. Endoparasites C. Free living D. Sedentary
4. Blood Flukes ( Schistosoma haematobium) are parasites found in tha portal veins of
A. Man B. Dog C. Cattle D. Cat
5. Liver Flukes ( Fasciola hepatica) of sheep causes a disease called
A. Hepatitis B. Liver rot C. Cirrhosis D. None of these
6. The egg of Schistosoma heamatobium has a posterior
A. Flagella B. Cilla C. Spine D. Sucker
7. Blood Fluke causes a disease called
A. Schistosomiasis B. Liver rot C. Conjunctivitis D. Encephalitis
8. The encysted stage in the development of Fasciola is called.
A. Miracidia B. Redia C. Metacercarla D. Cercarla
9. The intermediate host of Fasciola hepatica is
A. Pig B. Dog C. Snail D. Mosquito
10. The Liver Fluke attaches itself to the liver of sheep with its.
A. Suckers B. Scolex C. Hooks D. Slimy secretion.
11. Gynaecophoral canal is found in the
A. Females of Schistosoma B. Males of Schistosoma C. Females of Ascaris D. Males of Ascaris
12. Taenia saginata is the
A. Dog tapeworm B. Beef tapeworm C. Pork tapeworm D. Fish tapeworm
13. Onchosphere is a larval stage of
A.Roundworm B.Tapeworm C. Earthworm D. Flatworm
14. Bladder worm is the larva of the
A.Tapeworm B. Roundworm C. Blood Fluke D. Lung Fluke
15. Tapeworm gets nourishment from the host by
A. Sucking B. Absorption through integument C. Prepares its own food D. Scraping
16. The youngest segment in the strobila of the tape worm is the
A. Last segment B. First segment of the growth zone
C. The middle segment D. Fourth segment near the neck
17. The scolex of Taenia solium has
A. 3 Suckers B. No Suckers C. 4 Suckers and hooks D. 4 Suckers, hooks and rostellum.
18. Alimentary canal is absent in
A.Tapeworm B.Blood Fluke C. Liver Fluke D. Planaria
19. The intermediate host of Taenia solium is
A. Limnea B. Culex C. Planorbis D. Pig
20. The disease in man caused by infection of bladder worm is known as
A Schistosomiasis B. Cysticercosis C. Taeniasis D. Enterobiasis
21. The larval stage of Taenia infective to pig is
A. Oncosphere B. Cysticercus C. Cercaria D. Metacercaria
22. The larva stage of Taenia infective to man is tha
A.Hexacanth larva B. Cysticercus C. Cercaria D.Miracidium
23. Respiration in tapeworm is mainly
A. Anaerobic B. Aerobic C. Diffusion D. None of these
24. ‘Measly pork’ is the term used for the flesh of pig infected with
A. Bladder worms B. Hexacanths C. Eggs of Taenia D. All the above
25. Taenia echinococcus is mainly the tapeworm in
A. Dogs B. Cats C. Man D. Snakes

1 A 2 B 3 C 4A 5 B 6 C 7 A 8C 9 C10 A11 B 12 B 13 B 14 A 15 B 16 B 17 D 18 A 19 D 20 B 21 A 22 B 23 A 24 A 25
1. In Narcine the scales arc-
a. Cycloid b. Placoid c. Ganoid d. Ctenoid.
2. In Ascidia coelom is-
a. Enterocoelous b. Schizocoelous c. Pseudocoelous d. all the above.
3. Number of cranial nerves in fishes:
a. 12 b. 10 c. 20 d. 15
4. Scroll valves are associated with-
a. Heart b. Kidneys c. Lymphs d. Intestine.
5.Yolk sac placenta is associated with-
a. Mugil b. Remora c. Scoliodon d. Hippocampus.
6. In urochordates larva is known as-
a. Bipinnaria b. Tadpole larva c. Pluteus d. Tomaria.
7. Webberian ossicles are connected to-
a. Tympanum b. Gonads c. Swim bladder d. Scales.
8. In Cephalochordates, the circulatory system is peculiar because-
a. Heart absent b. Blood corpuscles absent c. Blood colourless d. all the above.
9. Larva of Balanoghssus is-
a. Tornaria b. Muller’s larva c. Kentrogen larva d. Imago
10. Arborescent organs are present in-
a. Anabas b. Clarius c. Saccobranchus d. Dipnoi.
11. Which of the following is not a vertebrate, but a chordate?
a. Pigeon b. Hare c. Ascidia d. Lamprey.
12. Retreogresive metamorphosis is met with -
a. Herdmania b. Branchiostoma c. Petromyzon d. Balanoglossus
13. Acraniata are -
a. Agnatha b. Anamniota c. Acoelomata d. prochordata.
14. In which of the following groups jaws are absent?
a. Agnatha b. Urochordata c. Cephalochordata d. All.
15. Ammocoetus is the larval forms of-
a. Pisces b. Urochordates c. Agnatha d. Gnathostomata.
16. Which of the following is a hermaphrodite?
a. Amphioxus b. Ascidia c. Hag fish d. Dog fish
17. Young one of a fish is called-
a. Fry b. Larva c. Nymph d. Juvenile fish.
18. Poikilothermic amniotes come under the group-
a. Cephalochordata b. Reptilia c. Gnath stomata d. Agnatha.
19. Ising-glass is obtained from-
a. Placoid scales b. Swim bladder c. Liver of shark d. Ovary.
20. Which of the following is a cold-blooded tetrapod?
a. Rat b. Toad c. Fish d. Pigeon
21. A distinct notochord is present in the adults of-
a. Ascidia b. Amphioxus c. Cyclostomata d. Pisces.
22. Which one is commonly known as tongue worm?
a. Branchiostoma b. Herdmania c. Salpa d. Balanoglossus.
23. The oldest living fish is
a. Latimeria b. Coelacanth c. Lobe-finned d. All
24. Prototerus is a-
a. Crossopterygean fish b. Ddipnoi fish c. Elasmobranch fish d. Cat fish.
ANSWER 1 B 2A 3 C 4 D 5C 6 B 7 C 8 D 9 A 10 B 11 C 12 A 13 D 14 A 15 C 16 B 17 A 18 B 19 B 20 B 21 B 22 D 23 D 24 B

Friday, April 4, 2008


1. AIDS is caused by
a. Rubeola virus b. Treponema c. Human immunodeficiency virus d. None
2. The tusks of elephant are modified form of
a. Canine b. Molar c. Incisors d. premolar
3. The energy currency of a cell is a. AMP b. ADP c. ATP d. GTP
4. Squamous epithelium forms the inner lining of
a. Heart b. Lung alveoli c. Kidney d. Salivary duct
5. Cobalt containing vitamine is a. B2 b. B1 c. B6 d. B12
6. Which of the following represent the central dogma in molecular Biology
a. DNA —> RNA —> Protein b. RNA —> Protein —> DNA
c. RNA—> DNA —> Protein d. DNA —> Protein —> RNA
7. The branch deals with the scientific enquiry of life in outer space is known as
a. Paleobotany b. Exobiology c. Cytology d. evolution
8. If the blood group of a child is ‘O’ then father and mother will not be
a. A b. B c. AB d. O
9. Which is the odd man out a. Lymphocytes b. Basophils c. Eosinophils d. Neutrophils
10. Turner syndrome is due to
a. Trisomy of 21st chromosome b. Monosomy of 21st chromosome
c. trisonomy of sex chromosome d. monosomy of sex chromosome
11. Meroblastic discoidal cleavage is seen in a. Rabbit b. Hen c. Mosquito d. All
12. Which is not involved in clotting of blood a. Ca b. Platelets c. Fibrinogen d. Fe
13. 4S gland is a. thyroid b. Adrenal c. Pituitory d. Parathyroid
14. Animal having largest RBC
a. elephant b. Camel c. ambhiuma d. Crocodile
15. The blood bank of body is
a. spleen b. Bonemarrow c. Heart d. Lungs
16. Hyperopia can be corrected by
a. Biconvex lens b. Biconcave lens c. Cylindrical lense d. None
17. Egg of man is a. Alecithal b. Microlecithal c. Macrolecithal d. None
18. One of the given ratio is nearly equal to the ratio obtained when F1 hybrid is crossed with recessive parent
a. 100 : 200 b. 200 : 500 c. 301 : 310 d. 600 : 800
19. In a typical Mendelian dihybrid cross, out of the 16 F2 offsprings, how many will have all dominant alleles
a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 9
20. Which of the following is a truefish
a. cuttle fish b. Jellyfish c. Catfish d. silverfish
21. Tetany is caused due to the dificiency of
a. thyroxine b. parathormone c. melatonin d. calcitonin
22. Bats come under the group
a. Dermoptera b. Chiroptera c. Insectivora d. Carnivora
23. Cancer is caused by the activation of
a. Recombinant genes b. Dominant genes c. Oncogenes d. None
24. A sieve like plate on the aboral surface of a seastar
a. Aristotle lantern b. Velum c. ambulacral groove d. Madreporite
25. sex attractants used in sex attractant trap is
a. Hormone b. enzymes c. Pheromones d. None
26. The correct among the following
a. chordata —> ambhibia —> shark b. Annelida —> polychaete —> pinworm
c. Chordata —> reptelia —> salamander d. Arthropoda —>insecta —> silver fish
27. Griffith effect was observed in
a. Pseudomonas b. Pneumococus c. Salmonella d. Closteridium
28. Ecdyson is secreted from
a. corpora cardiaca b. prothoracic gland c. corpora allata d. None
29. wish bone in birds a. Bones of forelimbs b. Clavicle c. Pelvic girdle d. None
30. Enzymes were first discovered by
a. Edward Buchner b. Morgan c. Louis Pasteur d. Flemming

1 C 2 C 3 C 4 B 5 D 6 A 7 B 8 C 9 A 10 D 11 B 12 D 13 B 14 C 15 A 16 A 17 A
18C 19 A 20 C 21 B 22 B 23 C 24 D 25 C 26 D 27 B 28 B 29 B 30 A

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